I have a piece of scripture I've been struggling with and wonder if folks can help me-- either that you have thought about this or read about this.
A little background/context: We all agree that Paul makes clear that there can be no barriers or addition to the grace that saves in Christ Jesus. No additional ritual, no requirements, nothing. We also agree, I would assume, that when Paul says that circumcision or no circumcision means nothing, just Christ, and that he fought for the "full inclusion" of all people as they are (particularly Gentiles). He even waged a strong debate and received approval from the Jerusalem council that for the sake of the gospel, nothing beyond the Holy Spirit and grace is needed for salvation. Period. No more was circumcision a requirement. I think we are all there. NO BARRIERS TO SALVATION. (This is the typical line of debate "full inclusion" includes rostering gay and lesbians in committed relationships and not to do so puts limits or boxes our salvation, etc, etc, etc).
Ok, now, starting with no barriers to salvation, now lets turn to standards and practices, etc for rostering/authorizing leaders. I came across this text in my devotions last week, and began wondering why this happened AFTER the Jerusalem debate and why Luke would include it:
Acts 16: {Paul} came to Derbe and then to Lystra, where a disciple named Timothy lived whose mother was a Jewess and a believer, but whose father was a Greek. The brothers at Lystra and Iconium spoke well of him. Paul wanted to take him along on the journey, so he circumcised him because of the Jews who lived in that area, for they all knew that his father was a Greek. As they traveled from town to town, they delivered the decisions reached by the apostles and the elders in Jerusalem. (Acts 16:1-4)
Ok, now, maybe we can't really know the mind of Paul, or Luke for that matter. But here it is. Why circumcise when it has been agreed as not necessary? Timothy is already a "disciple," so we can assume he has been saved as he is. So when bringing him on the journey, training him and equipping him to be a leader, on possibly even the level of apostle (though I know we don't typically classify him thus), Paul feels compelled to circumcise. Is this not some sort of 'additional standard' for leadership and authority? Would not the message have been more powerful with a "living example" of this fuller teaching? And yet the fact remains: Paul still circumcises!
I would like to get some input to help sort it out. Also, I need to point out, I know this is one text. So before there is an outcry of "proof-texting," I would just like to say we should read this more anecdotally than as a mandate, but it seems to me to be a missing component in all the circumcism/requirements, etc talk and debate. Does it broaden and deepen the discussion, or is this something that only causes confusion and therefore gets ignored? Is there any thought and discussion already out there?