The title of this new thread may not get at the core issue raised on the other one. I don't think the issue was whether one was right or wrong about a given doctrine of the church, as such, but about what specifically is a sin and whether one is repentant of that sin if they are guilty of it.
You raise a few different issues. One: Can we ever list what is specifically a sin, and, even more importantly, what is not a sin? As sinful human beings, whatever we do will be tainted by our sinful nature.
Two, does repentance require one to stop doing what they considered to be sin? Sometimes we can stop doing things. We can stop stealing. We can stop swearing. We can stop calling people unkind names. Other times we know that we cannot stop our sins. We will covet things that our neighbors' have. While we won't utter swear words or unkind names, they still pop into our heads - as does lust and pride.
I remember a seminary professor asking, "In ten years from now will I be less of a sinner than I am now?" The answer was and is, "No." Repentance does not stop us from sinning.
We obviously have two very different beliefs on this one. On the one side we have those who see homosexual behavior as perfectly acceptable to God and compatible with His will. On the other side we have those who see homosexual behavior as distinctly sinful and a direct violation of the 6th commandment.
You are overstating things a bit. Homosexual behaviors are as acceptable to God as heterosexual behaviors. This means that there are some sexual behaviors, such as μοιχεύω and πορνεύω, that are not acceptable to God. There are some sexual behaviors, such as rape, while not mentioned in scriptures, are unlawful.
What, for some of us, makes a sexual relationship acceptable to God and us or not, is the quality of the relationship between the couple. μοιχεύω and πορνεύω occur between couples who are not married to each other. Rape happens when one exerts power over an unwilling partner.
Someone pointed out years ago when we were discussing this, that opponents to homosexual relationships stress the behavior(s). Supporters stress the relationship.
We can debate this, but I already know where we are going. Personally I believe that it is sinful and requires repentance. But I and the church body to which I belong have a much different view of Holy Scripture than the liberal mainline denominations. The discussion will be a non-starter from the beginning since we will immediately disagree on the premise itself.
My question. which I've asked elsewhere is, What does that repentance look like? From what I've heard, repentance for a homosexual in a same-sex marriage looks different than repentance for a heterosexual who is in a second or third or fourth marriages after divorces. Specifically, homosexual repentance seems to mean: they will never engage in sexual behaviors with a partner of the same sex. Heterosexual repentance seems to mean: regretting that the earlier marriages didn't last; but it's OK to become "one flesh" with the new spouses.
Let's take another biblical passage that seems quite clear - that also talks about an abomination to the LORD, Deuteronomy 24:1-4:
“When a man takes a wife and marries her, if then she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some indecency in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out of his house, and she departs out of his house, and if she goes and becomes another man's wife, and the latter man hates her and writes her a certificate of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out of his house, or if the latter man dies, who took her to be his wife, then her former husband, who sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after she has been defiled, for that is an abomination before the LORD. And you shall not bring sin upon the land that the LORD your God is giving you for an inheritance.I chose this passage, first of all, because it uses, תּוֹעֵבָה, the same word in Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 in regards to a man lying with a male as with a woman. It is usually translated, "abomination."
Secondly, a clergy friend of mine did exactly this. He divorced his first wife with whom he had two children. Married another woman. Divorced her. Then remarried the first wife. Should he have been barred from serving any congregations because what he had done was "an abomination before the LORD"? He wasn't. He continued to serve congregations, but he is ELCA. Does the LCMS have rules against this abomination?
Thirdly, a member of my church asked my counsel on this. Her first husband and her had a child. He was abusive. They got divorced. They both remarried. The second husband was abusive. They divorced. She still loved her first husband and was thinking about remarrying him. (He was no longer married.) He had admitted and confessed his mistakes when they had been married before. Their daughter was all for it. What should our counsel be? Is it an abomination if she remarries her first husband; or that he remarries his first wife?
Have any others faced this particular situation? How do you respond?