ELCA social statements are descriptive and serve the purpose for opinion only. I don't believe that they help or hurt. Like opinions of the court they may or may not influence the final verdict. God is not happy with opinio legis. God wants perfect, thorough and constant justice NOW. God does not stand our opinions and is waiting angrily for us to do right. Preaching of Gods law says that we need to all repent now! See Romans 1 and 3. ELCA social statements continue to put off the job of calling each person individually and collectively to repentance. These statements as descriptive purport to set readers at a distance so that they can be the judges rather than be placed under judgment which is a sinner's proper place to be. A church needs to do that instead of churning out more fodder for human-to-human activity which is the Kantian project and not Gods project.
Apologies requested for bad punctuation...my editor went to bed! Lol
The Law as a call that we can't perfectly keep the law which leads us to repentance is one use of the Law. The Law as a call to improve our civil righteousness, which we can do to some extent is another use of the Law.
Nope. The accusatory nature of the law remains valid under both uses. From Romans 3: "...with the law comes the knowledge of sin."
The law is not simply informative.
And curbing and guiding behaviors remains valid. The knowledge of sin is not the only thing God uses the law for.
Romans 3:21 says that the law and prophets bear witness to the righteousness of God. Romans 3:31 says: "Do we then overthrow the law by this faith? By no means! On the contrary, we uphold the law." (ESV)
Romans 13:8-10 (boldface added)
"Owe no one anything, except to love each other, for the one who loves another has fulfilled the law. For the commandments, 'You shall not commit adultery, You shall not murder, You shall not steal, You shall not covet,' and any other commandment, are summed up in this word: 'You shall love your neighbor as yourself.' Love does no wrong to a neighbor, there love is the fulfilling of the law."
Paul expects believers to fulfill the law by loving one another. The difference is that we no longer seek to use the law to justify ourselves. We still use it to curb and guide our behaviors as we seek to love our neighbors as ourselves.
1 Timothy 1:8 states that "the law is good if one uses it lawfully." It then goes on to talk about how the law can curb the behaviors of sinners.
comments to the bold above: You are taking Romans 3:21 out of context. After St. Paul puts a nail in the coffin of the law's ability to gain righteousness (ie. the law can only lead to the knowledge of sin), he says that APART FROM LAW a righteousness of God has appeared. The Greek preposition for APART FROM has the nuance of a radical break from what came before (rightousness based on the law) to what is new and mutually exclusive righteousness. This righteousness has no foundation on the type of righteousness which the law claims is based only upon itself. The new type of righteousenss (although hinted at by the former law and prophets) is based on Christ's substitutionary death for sinners which is part of the unique New Testament Gospel. It has no relation to the law except that it is assumed into Christ and taken away from us through his death on the cross. It is a new righteousness not based on the law of love ala Leviticus. As an exegete you need to practice on your interpretive skills by reading in context.
You've changed the topic from "the law" to "righteousness". I'm talking about uses of the Law (and making us righteous is not one of the uses).
χωρὶς νόμου raises all kinds of questions. What νόμος? Is Paul limiting it to the Torah? Is he making a statement about all laws? E.g., we don't become righteous before God by driving the speed limit.
What does χωρὶς νόμου modify? Is it to be connected to δικαιοσύνη θεοῦ; that there is a righteousness of God with law and now a righteousness of God apart from law? Does it modify πεφανέρωται? The righteousness of God had been revealed by the law; but not it is revealed apart from the law (perhaps referring to the righteousness of God seen in Jesus)?
The the "now" event undo the earlier event or is it in addition to?
There are some scholars who believe that there continues to be a righteousness of God that comes through the Law for the Jews. That was God's promise to them and God can't go back on his word. In addition to that, there is a righteousness of God separated from the law for Gentiles. Others believe that the righteousness of God in Jesus nullifies the earlier promises.
Or, using the other approach, the righteousness of God (=what God deems is right) had been revealed on Mount Sinai. but now the righteousness of God has been revealed in Jesus without the law. Is the revelation through Jesus in addition to the revelation on Sinai or does it nullify and replace God's Word on the tablets?
If the only righteousness that counts is the one God gives us, why should we bother to try and live moral lives before others? Why strive for civil righteousness if it just doesn't matter to God? Has God abandoned the civil use of the law?